These words have been
freely taken by preachers to mean that when our Lord Jesus received His
40 stripes in the Roman Prætorium, we get physical healing in His
atonement. Simply, it is taught by many (especially among the
Pentecostal and the Charismatic people) that physical healing is in the
atonement. But is it?
Preachers were once
students. They heard sermons preached by the older ones and read books
written by able ministers. Because a teaching or an interpretation of
certain passage of Scriptures was often echoed by the majority, the
preacher-students would (almost always) take such
teaching/interpretation as the truth. For example, take the doctrines of the
Trinity, Water Baptism in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit,
and Eternal Hell Fire, and if you can, analyze how they have become
embedded in Christian "faith". There are many other examples.
It is commonly said by
Bible believers that God interprets His own Word. True, yet in saying
that, many are not even able to comprehend the mind of the Spirit within the context of the
word usage as uttered by the prophets or as written by the apostles. That's
the crux of the matter.
Now, Matthew 8:16-17 is
taken to interpret Isa.53:5
"...with his stripes we
are healed".
MAT 8:16 When the even
was come, they brought unto him many that were possessed with devils:
and he cast out the spirits with his word, and healed all that were
sick:
17 That it might be
fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Himself took
our infirmities,
and bare our sicknesses.
Taking the two verses and
conclude that physical healing is in the death of Christ is much the
same as what Peter said on the day of Pentecost, "this is that
which was spoken by the prophet Joel" (Acts 2:16). However, the fact remains as to
how much is "THIS" to "THAT" in context of the
thoughts and interpretations. Read the whole of Joel chapter 2.
Three other common examples of how
certain words
have been selectively taken out of context to imply a so-called "truth"
are:
i) REV 3:20 "Behold, I stand at
the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will
come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me". This
verse is often interpreted that Christ is
knocking at sinners' heart and pleading them to let Him come in to be
their Saviour. Is it?
ii) GEN 3:6 "And
when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was
pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she
took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto
her husband with her
and he did eat."
Now, Christians are asking
Bible believers, "If Eve partake of sex with the Serpent, that means
Adam was watching – "her
husband with her".
See? How much of "this is that" in
her husband with her?
Where was Adam when Eve fornicated with the Serpent? Was Adam
standing there watching that illicit sexual act?
iii) ACT 15:20
"But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of
idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood."
Majority of Christian people insist that God's people are not to eat
anything strangled and blood. They would take this verse and make its
interpretation from the many commandments given on it in the Old
Testament. Bible interprets Bible, they would say. But how much is
"this is that" as written in the Old Testament with that New Testament
verse?
Many other such cases have
also been taken for granted
and over a period of time, the hearers are "indoctrinated" to accept
them as true interpretations. Preachers are greatly to be blamed for
"parroting" them as truths.
Now, does the words
"infirmities" and "sicknesses" (in Matt.8:16-17) speak directly of physical
diseases? Or was a hasty conclusion made by Christians simply because
Matthew made a reference to Isaiah's utterances? How much is
"this" to "that"? The verse in fact speak of those
who were possessed with devils and that Christ cast the spirits out of
them with His Word healing them all. A sin-sick soul needs a spiritual
cleansing, not a physical healing.
The atonement was to
provide a healing for man's
sin-sick soul. "Without the shedding of blood is no remission of
sin" (cf. Heb.9:22).
Certainly, it is not "without the shedding of blood is no physical healing".
Because blood was involved
in the Fall, blood was required in payment for sin.
Life for life, eye for eye, blood for blood. Sin came by one act of
fornication between Eve and the Serpent. Adam identified with Eve in her
sin so as to "redeem" her from the wrath of God's judgement. (I pray
that you understand why Adam had to do that. If not, read
THE ORIGINAL SIN ~ What is it?
& THE SERPENT SEED.)
Hence, "by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and
so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned" (Rom.5;12).
The BLOOD atones and heals the soul, not the physical body. The
blood of Christ was shed to redeem man back to his Creator. Christ was
made an offering for sin. Before there was Calvary, there was already healing for the
physical body for God Himself is the Healer - "I am the Lord that
healeth thee" (Ex.15:26).
Now, let's us take a
closer look at Isaiah's prophetic words and see if those words, or even
the other statements in the passage of Isa.53:4-12, speak of
"physical healing is in
the atonement".
ISA 53:4 Surely he hath
borne our grieves, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him
stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our
iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and
with his stripes we are
healed.
6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his
own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth:
he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her
shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.
8 He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his
generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the
transgression of my people was he stricken.
9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death;
because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10 Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when
thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he
shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in
his hand.
11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by
his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear
their iniquities.
12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall
divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul
unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the
sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
There is no doubt that
with his stripes we are
healed refers
not to physical healing but
spiritual healing. All Scripture verses on
sin and salvation are clear – that Christ died to save man from their
sins. Nowhere can one find that Christ died to heal man of their
physical diseases. Isa.53 has been mis-interpreted.
Physical healing is in God's Word.
In all His wounding,
bruising and chastising, Christ took away our transgressions, our
iniquities, and restore our peace with God. All these were for our
salvation (cf. Isa.52:7; Acts 10:30; Rom.5:1). Hence, "with his stripes we are
healed"
– that is, with all those
painful violence tearing at Him we are spiritually healed.
1PE 2:22 Who did
no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he
threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously:
24
Who his
own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree,
that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness:
by whose stripes ye
were healed.
25 For ye were as
sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the
Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.